With all my worldly goods...

If you and I went into partnership making widgets or some such, and then decided that we didn't really get on, and decided to part company, we would dissolve our partnership and share out the assets - if any. If either of us then decided to continue the business alone, and made a success of it, we would not expect the other to come knocking on our door demanding a share of the profits made since they left. So why is marriage any different? If a couple divorce, they are each clearly entitled to a share of matrimonial assets, but why should there be any question of either of them having any entitlement to a share of the future income of the other? I've never understood it.